Latest [May 17, 2026] Real ISACA CRISC Exam Dumps Questions
CRISC Dumps To Pass Isaca Certificaton Exam in One Day (Updated 1890 Questions)
Passing the CRISC certification exam can open up many career opportunities for IT professionals, as it demonstrates their expertise in managing risks related to information systems. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is recognized by employers around the world and can help IT professionals stand out in a competitive job market. In addition, maintaining the CRISC certification requires ongoing professional development, which helps IT professionals stay up-to-date with the latest trends and best practices in risk management and information systems control.
NEW QUESTION # 127
You are the risk official in Techmart Inc. You are asked to perform risk assessment on the impact of losing a network connectivity for 1 day. Which of the following factors would you include?
- A. Financial losses incurred by affected business units
- B. Hourly billing rate charged by the carrier
- C. Value that enterprise get on transferring data over the network
- D. Aggregate compensation of all affected business users.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
The impact of network unavailability is the cost it incurs to the enterprise. As the network is unavailable for 1 day, it can be considered as the failure of some business units that rely on this network. Hence financial losses incurred by this affected business unit should be considered.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: These factors in combination contribute to the overall financial impact, i.e., financial losses incurred by affected business units.
NEW QUESTION # 128
Which of the following BEST measures the efficiency of an incident response process?
- A. Average gap between actual and agreed response times
- B. Average time between changes and updating of escalation matrix
- C. Number of incidents lacking responses
- D. Number of incidents escalated to management
Answer: A
Explanation:
The average gap between actual and agreed response times is the best measure of the efficiency of an incident response process, as it indicates how well the process meets the service level agreements (SLAs) and the expectations of the stakeholders. A smaller gap means that the process is more efficient and effective in resolving incidents within the agreed time frame. The other options are not the best measures of the efficiency of an incident response process, as they do not directly reflect the performance of the process against the SLAs. The number of incidents escalated to management may indicate the complexity or severity of the incidents, but not the efficiency of the process. The average time between changes and updating of escalation matrix may indicate the agility or flexibility of the process, but not the efficiency of the process. The number of incidents lacking responses may indicate the capacity or availability of the process, but not the efficiency of the process. References = Top 5 Incident Response Metrics with Real-World Examples & Impact; Mastering Incident Response: Best Practices for Effective Handling; The Five Steps of Incident Response
NEW QUESTION # 129
Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators
(KRIs)?
- A. Improving risk awareness
- B. Optimizing risk treatment decisions
- C. Leveraging existing metrics
- D. Obtaining buy-in from risk owners
Answer: A
Explanation:
The main benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs) is improving risk
awareness, as it helps to communicate the risk exposure, appetite, and tolerance of the organization to the
relevant parties. KRIs are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given operational
risk1. By involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs, the risk practitioner can ensure that the KRIs are
aligned with the stakeholder expectations, needs, and objectives, and that they reflect the most significant
risks that affect the organization. This also helps to foster a risk culture and a shared understanding of risk
among the stakeholders, which can enhance the risk management process and performance. The other options
are not the main benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs, although they may be some of the
outcomes or advantages of doing so. Obtaining buy-in from risk owners, leveraging existing metrics, and
optimizing risk treatment decisions are all important aspects of risk management, but they are not the primary
reason for involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs. References = Key Risk Indicators; Key Risk
Indicators: A Practical Guide; The 10 Types of Stakeholders That You Meet in Business; What are
Stakeholders? Stakeholder Definition | ASQ
NEW QUESTION # 130
You are the project manager of the NKJ Project for your company. The project's success or failure will have a significant impact on your organization's profitability for the coming year. Management has asked you to identify the risk events and communicate the event's probability and impact as early as possible in the project. Management wants to avoid risk events and needs to analyze the cost-benefits of each risk event in this project. What term is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project?
- A. is incorrect. Risk avoidance is a risk response to avoid negative risk events.
- B. Mitigation-ready project management
- C. Risk avoidance
- D. Risk utility function
- E. Explanation:
Risk utility function is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project.
The risk utility function describes a person's or organization's willingness to accept risk. It is
synonymous with stakeholder tolerance to risk.
Risk utility function facilitates the selection and acceptance of risk and provides opportunity to
merge the approach with setting thresholds
of risk acceptability and using utility-risk ratios if necessary. - F. is incorrect. This is not a valid project management and risk management term.
- G. Risk-reward mentality
Answer: D
Explanation:
is incorrect. Risk-reward describes the balance between accepting risks and the
expected reward for the risk event. Risk-reward mentality is not a valid project management term.
NEW QUESTION # 131
A risk manager has determined there is excessive risk with a particular technology. Who is the BEST person to own the unmitigated risk of the technology?
- A. IT system owner
- B. Chief financial officer
- C. Chief risk officer
- D. Business process owner
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best person to own the unmitigated risk of the technology is the IT system owner. The IT system owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility for the acquisition, development, maintenance, and operation of the IT system. The IT system owner is also responsible for ensuring that the IT system meets the business requirements, security standards, and compliance obligations of the enterprise. The IT system owner should own the unmitigated risk of the technology, as they are in the best position to understand the nature and impact of the risk, and to implement the appropriate risk responses to reduce the risk exposure to an acceptable level. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter
1, Section 1.3.1, page 251234
NEW QUESTION # 132
A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner recommend be done NEXT?
- A. Identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact.
- B. Implement targeted awareness training for new BYOD users.
- C. Implement monitoring to detect control deterioration.
- D. Reduce the risk tolerance level.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 133
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to adopt key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk monitoring and reporting process?
- A. To provide assessments of mitigation effectiveness
- B. To provide assurance of adherence to risk management policies
- C. To provide data for establishing the risk profile
- D. To provide measurements on the potential for risk to occur
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 134
A new regulator/ requirement imposes severe fines for data leakage involving customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). The risk practitioner has recommended avoiding the risk. Which of the following actions would BEST align with this recommendation?
- A. Modify business processes to stop collecting Pll.
- B. Move Pll to a highly-secured outsourced site.
- C. Reduce retention periods for Pll data.
- D. Implement strong encryption for Pll.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Avoiding the risk means eliminating the source of the risk or changing the likelihood or impact to zero. In this case, the source of the risk is the collection of customers' personally identifiable information (Pll), which could be exposed to unauthorized parties and result in severe fines. Therefore, the best action to avoid the risk is to modify the business processes to stop collecting Pll, as this would eliminate the possibility of data leakage and the associated consequences. The other options are not as effective as modifying the business processes, because they do not avoid the risk, but rather mitigate or transfer the risk, as explained below:
A: Reduce retention periods for Pll data is a mitigation action, as it reduces the impact of the risk by minimizing the amount of data that could be leaked and the duration of exposure.
B: Move Pll to a highly-secured outsourced site is a transfer action, as it shifts the responsibility of protecting the data to a third party, but does not eliminate the risk of data leakage.
D: Implement strong encryption for Pll is a mitigation action, as it reduces the likelihood of the risk by making the data unreadable to unauthorized parties, but does not eliminate the risk of data leakage. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, page 40.
NEW QUESTION # 135
Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?
- A. Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management
- B. Functional overlap across the business is minimized
- C. Key stakeholders are enrolled as members
- D. Committee meets at least quarterly
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best way to ensure the effective decision-making of an IT risk management committee is to enroll key stakeholders as members. Key stakeholders are the individuals or groups who have an interest or influence in the IT risk management process, such as business owners, senior management, IT managers, auditors, regulators, customers, and suppliers. By involving key stakeholders in the IT risk management committee, the committee can benefit from their diverse perspectives, expertise, and experience, and ensure that the IT risk management decisions are aligned with the business objectives, priorities, and expectations. Key stakeholders can also provide valuable input, feedback, and support for the IT risk management activities, and help communicate and implement the IT risk management decisions across the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 36.
NEW QUESTION # 136
You are the project manager of your enterprise. You have introduced an intrusion detection system for the control. You have identified a warning of violation of security policies of your enterprise. What type of control is an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
- A. Recovery
- B. Detective
- C. Preventative
- D. Corrective
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network and/or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a Management Station. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts. In addition, organizations use IDPS for other purposes, such as identifying problems with security policies, documenting existing threats, and deterring individuals from violating security policies.
As IDS detects and gives warning when the violation of security policies of the enterprise occurs, it is a detective control.
Incorrect Answers:
B: These controls make effort to reduce the impact of a threat from problems discovered by detective controls.
As IDS only detects but not reduce the impact, hence it is not a corrective control.
C: As IDS only detects the problem when it occurs and not prior of its occurrence, it is not preventive control.
D: These controls make efforts to overcome the impact of the incident on the business, hence IDS is not a recovery control.
NEW QUESTION # 137
What are the functions of audit and accountability control?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose three.)
- A. Implement effective access control
- B. Provides details on how to determine what to audit
- C. Provides details on how to protect the audit logs
- D. Implement an effective audit program
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Audit and accountability family of controls helps an organization implement an effective audit program. It provides details on how to determine what to audit. It provides details on how to protect the audit logs. It also includes information on using audit logs for non-repudiation.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Access Control is the family of controls that helps an organization implement effective access control.
They ensure that users have the rights and permissions they need to perform their jobs, and no more. It includes principles such as least privilege and separation of duties.
Audit and accountability family of controls do not help in implementing effective access control.
NEW QUESTION # 138
Which of the following BEST enables detection of ethical violations committed by employees?
- A. Whistleblower program
- B. Periodic job rotation
- C. Access control attestation
- D. Transaction log monitoring
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 139
Which of the following will BEST help mitigate the risk associated with malicious functionality in outsourced application development?
- A. Utilize the change management process.
- B. Validate functionality by running in a test environment.
- C. Perform an in-depth code review with an expert.
- D. Implement a service level agreement.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 140
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?
- A. The organization-wide control budget is expanded
- B. Corporate incident escalation protocols are established
- C. Risk appetite cascades to business unit management
- D. Exposure is integrated into the organization's risk profile
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 141
After the implementation of internal of Things (IoT) devices, new risk scenarios were identified. What is the PRIMARY reason to report this information to risk owners?
- A. The recommend changes to the IoT policy
- B. To confirm the impact to the risk profile
- C. To reevaluate continued use to IoT devices
- D. The add new controls to mitigate the risk
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 142
When of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of en intrusion prevention system (IPS)?
- A. Reaction time of the system to threats
- B. Total number of threats identified
- C. Percentage of system uptime
- D. Percentage of relevant threats mitigated
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 143
Tom works as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. He is determining which risks can affect the project. Which of the following inputs of the identify risks process is useful in identifying risks, and provides a quantitative assessment of the likely cost to complete the scheduled activities?
- A. Explanation:
The activity cost estimates review is valuable in identifying risks as it provides a quantitative assessment of the expected cost to complete the scheduled activities and is expressed as a range, with a width of the range indicating the degrees of risk. - B. Activity cost estimates
- C. Cost management plan
- D. Risk management plan
- E. Activity duration estimates
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
is incorrect. This is the output of plan risk management process. A Risk management plan is a document arranged by a project manager to estimate the effectiveness, predict risks, and build response plans to mitigate them. It also consists of the risk assessment matrix. Answer:A is incorrect. The activity duration estimates review is valuable in identifying risks associated to the time allowances for the activities or projects as a whole, with a width of the range indicating the degrees of risk. Answer:C is incorrect. The cost management plan sets how the costs on a project are managed during the project's lifecycle. It defines the format and principles by which the project costs are measured, reported, and controlled. The cost management plan identifies the person responsible for managing costs, those who have the authority to approve changes to the project or its budget, and how cost performance is quantitatively calculated and reported upon.
NEW QUESTION # 144
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use key control indicators (KCIs) to evaluate control operating effectiveness?
- A. To identify control vulnerabilities
- B. To measure business exposure to risk
- C. To monitor the achievement of set objectives
- D. To raise awareness of operational issues
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 145
Who is responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced to an external service provider?
- A. Organization's risk function
- B. Service provider's information security manager
- C. Service provider's IT management
- D. Organization's information security manager
Answer: D
Explanation:
The organization's information security manager is responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced to an external service provider. The information security manager is accountable for ensuring that the security policies and standards of the organization are followed by the service provider, and that the security objectives and requirements are met. The information security manager is also responsible for monitoring and evaluating the security performance and compliance of the service provider, and for managing the security risks and incidents that may arise from the outsourcing arrangement. The organization's risk function, the service provider's IT management, and the service provider's information security manager are not responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced, as they have different roles and responsibilities in the outsourcing process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section
5.2.1.2, page 2461
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Exam Guide, Answer to Question
651.
NEW QUESTION # 146
Which of the following roles would be MOST helpful in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss?
- A. Data privacy officer
- B. Audit committee
- C. Customer database manager
- D. Customer data custodian
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 147
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